USMC Infantry Rifleman (MOS 0311) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the definition of Contact within C.A.R.S.?
• What is the back blast specification for the AT4?
• Which item is not a HAMALA asset category?
• Which statement describes the second method to occupy a Patrol Base (haunt patrol away from the AO and recon before moving in)?
• What is the definition of Security?
• Fire and Maneuver is the process whereby elements of a unit establish a base of fire to engage the enemy, while another element maneuvers to an advantageous position from which to close with and destroy or capture the enemy.
• What is the M32 maximum range?
• Try not to set up a patrol base on what type of terrain?
• For the M32 grenade launcher, what is the point target range?
• What is the M240B muzzle velocity?
• Which position can serve as the release point from which units move into positions to accomplish the mission at the objective?
• Which of the following is not a HASAD element?
• Which statement about FEBA is most accurate?
• What is the M32 maximum effective range?
• What is the primary purpose of a Combat patrol?
• Which of the following is a valid night LZ marking method?
• Which statement best defines a Hasty Ambush?
• Which distance is the M27 max range?
• What is the definition of Raid?
• Which label corresponds to the Alternate fighting position?
• TCCC stands for?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of RIGS?
• Which distance is the M203 arming distance?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the six troop leading steps?
• What are the two types of patrol?
• The femoral pulse is located in the inner thigh, with a typical rate of 70 bpm. Which option matches?
• Grazing fires do not rise above the height of a standing man and may provide grazing fire up to 600 meters.
• Which fundamental focuses on understanding enemy capabilities and intent?
• Which is a component of S.A.F.E.S.O.C.?
• Which of the following is a correct reason to set up a Patrol Base?
• What is the sustained rate of fire for the M27?
• TTLODAC includes which elements?
• Which statement is true about M240B target ranges?
• In the mnemonic C.C.C.C.C.T., what is the second element?
• How many troop leading steps are in BAMCIS?
• Which fundamental emphasizes concentrating forces at decisive points?
• What is the M4 point target range?
• What is the M27 point target range?
• What are the three types of Recon Patrols commonly conducted?
• Which element is part of the S.A.F.E.S.O.C. acronym?
• In an ambush, what do the flanks not do?
• The M67 grenade has a kill radius of 5 meters and a casualty radius of 15 meters. Which statement is true?
• R.A.Z. stands for which three terms?
• Which distance defines the M27 point target?
• What is the definition of Ambush?
• In the BAMCIS six troop leading steps, what does the 'B' stand for?
• Which of the following is NOT a method to load into defense?
• In the S.A.M.K. sequence, which is the second action?
• In the ADDRAC acronym, what does the letter 'A' denote?
• Which distance correctly identifies the M27 area target?
• Which label corresponds to the Supplementary fighting position?
• What is the maximum range of the 60mm mortar?
• In Z.M.I.S.T., what does M stand for?
• Which distance is the M203 point target?
• In the SOSRA set, what does the letter 'S' stand for?
• Which fundamental governs how troops utilize terrain to gain advantage?
• Release Point is defined as which of the following?
• TRP is an acronym for which term?
• Which pair correctly matches the M203 engagement distances?
• Which term is used to describe the route used by an approaching enemy in the S.A.F.E.S.O.C. framework?
• Which is a night method to mark a landing zone?
• In the S.A.M.K. sequence, which action is performed first?
• Which is a day method to mark a landing zone?
• Which burn depth involves the epidermis and part of the dermis, commonly with blisters?
• During the dawn routine, what is described for the patrol base?
• Which statement is NOT an element of an IWLDMM call for fire?
• What are the three components of the Trinity of the Night?
• A Recon patrol is defined as?
• Patrol Base is defined as?
• What is the Final Preparation Position?
• Which fundamental emphasizes mutual support between units?
• What does FPP stand for in patrol planning?
• Oblique Fire is defined as fire delivered on the oblique of a target when the target is oriented between which angles to the firing unit?
• BDA stands for which term?
• Fire and Movement is described as which concept?
• Which statement about the M67 grenade radii is true?
• The pedal pulse is located where?
• What does the Area definition emphasize in patrol planning?
• Rapid Rate is the maximum amount of controlled fire which can be delivered on target for a short period (usually not more than two minutes) without overheating.
• SLLS is an acronym used in patrol briefings. What does it stand for?
• What is the M203 minimum safe firing range?
• Which type of fire is delivered over the heads of friendly troops?
• Which action should be avoided when leaving a Patrol Base?
• Which statement describes a Point ambush patrol?
• Which range estimation method uses observation of fire to estimate range?
• What is the M4 maximum range?
• CARS stands for what?
• What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M27?
• Kill radius of M67 fragmentation grenade?
• What is the back blast specification for the M72 LAW?
• What defines danger close for Naval Gunfire 127mm?
• Which statement about the M27 is incorrect?
• In Z.M.I.S.T., what does I stand for?
• DRAW-DG includes Defend, Reinforce, Attack, Withdraw, Delay, and Gas Capabilities. Which is the correct acronym?
• Where do you never place a tourniquet (TQ)?
• Sustained Rate is the actual rate of well-directed fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite length of time without overheating.
• C.A.R.S. stands for which set of terms?
• When selecting a Patrol Base location what should you verify?
• LP/OP stands for?
• What type of fire support does the 60mm mortar provide?
• The M203 arming distance is how many meters?
• OCOKAW is defined by Observation, Cover, Obstacles, Key Terrain, Avenues of Approach, and Weather. Which acronym represents this set?
• What is the maximum duration for Patrol Base occupancy?
• Which target type for the M32 has the longer range?
• CCP stands for what?
• Which system has an area target of 350 meters?
• What are the three types of reconnaissance?
• Which description best defines PLD in the context of a night attack?
• Between bipod and tripod, which configuration provides the longer area-target range for the M240B?
• In patrol terminology, what does PB stand for?
• Which statement correctly pairs ambush patrol type with its description?
• What is the primary purpose of Final Protective Fire (FPF)?
• What are the three phases of offensive combat, in order?
• Which method of range estimation uses visual estimation by eye of target size?
• Which distance is the M203 area target?
• Which acronym stands for Time, Size, Unit, Activity, Location, and Equipment?
• Final Protective Fire (FPF) is described as which of the following?
• The carotid pulse is located in the neck and has a typical bpm range. Which option matches?
• How many mils are in a compass?
• Which of the following is not a type of Recon Patrol?
• Parapet Dimensions are listed as which specification?
• In the list of the 5 B's, which item completes Beans, Bullets, Bandages, Bad Guys, and _____?
• What does P.C.C. stand for?
• What is the maximum range of the M240B when engaging a point target with the tripod?
• Which of the following is not a principle of CQB?
• Average human body has how many liters of blood?
• Where is the Final Preparation Position typically located?
• When selecting a location for a patrol observation, which should be avoided?
• Name the three types of C-Wire.
• TRP stands for which term?
• 3 Parts of an IED?
• Overhead fires are delivered over the heads of friendly troops.
• Relative to the objective, the Objective Rally Point may be located:
• Which item is NOT part of SAFESOC?
• What is the maximum duration to stay in a Patrol Base?
• Grazing fires are limited to not rising above the height of a standing man.
• Which term describes a burn affecting only the outermost layer of skin?
• Which statement is not a phase of offensive combat?
• What is the third word in the C.C.C.C.C.T. sequence?
• Plunging fires strike the ground at a high angle, shortening the length of the beaten zone.
• Probable Line of Deployment (PLD) is defined as what?
• In GOTWA, what does the Where/When component specify?
• What is the maximum range of the M240B when engaging an area target with the tripod?
• The beaten zone is the long, narrow area created by the cone of fire striking a horizontal target.
• In the BAMCIS sequence, which step is responsible for issuing orders?
• Which of the following lists all four elements of a patrol?
• The radial pulse is located at the wrist, with a typical rate of 80 bpm. Which option matches?
• Which are the three phases of offensive combat?
• Two types of ambushes?
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose of patrol?
• What is the M203 minimum safe aiming distance?
• Which item is included in the Zone's information collection?
• Which back blast value corresponds to the AT4 launcher?
• What is the M72 LAW max range?
• What is the purpose of the Limit of Advance?
• GOTWA is a planning acronym used for patrols. What does it stand for?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of a patrol?
• Which distance is the M203 maximum range?
• Which term in the C.C.C.C.C.T. sequence denotes securing the area around a point of interest?
• BMNT stands for which of the following?
• What is the M4 area target range?
• Which statement correctly describes the Patrol Base?
• Which option correctly identifies the Limit of Advance in relation to objectives?
• Which method uses the 5 Degree Method to estimate range?
• What does P.C.I. stand for?
• What information does Route gather?
• Which equipment marks night LZ?
• In the Effective Beaten Zone concept, what percentage of rounds are expected to land in the beaten zone?
• A patrol whose primary purpose is to collect intelligence for future operations is called a
• How long do you have before someone bleeds out?
• Which item is not a component of S.A.F.E.S.O.C.?
• Which pulse is located at the wrist?
• Which list correctly names the three types of fighting positions?
• The pedal pulse is located at the feet, with a typical rate of 90 bpm. Which option matches?
• Which option lists the complete 5 C's of IEDs correctly?
• What are the two ways to assign fire teams in their sectors of fire for a patrol base?
• Two ways to occupy a Patrol Base include patrolling into the AO then setting in or which other method?
• Enfilade fire is delivered so that the beaten zone's long axis matches the target's long axis.
• Casualty radius of M67 fragmentation grenade?
• STRESS is an acronym used in post-blast or medical protocols. What does STRESS stand for?
• What is the M240B's maximum range?
• Forward Edge of the Battle Area (FEBA) is best described as what?
• Which of the following correctly matches the platform with its area-target range?
• What does Route in R.A.Z. describe?
• Which fundamental emphasizes pre-conflict preparation?
• Which statement best defines an Objective Rally Point?
• Which burn depth involves the full thickness of the skin and may require grafting?
• Release Point refers to what?
• Which statement is NOT part of the 5 C's of IEDs?
• What defines danger close for Mortar & Artillery in this material?
• What is the Zone used for in patrol operations?
• Which sequence correctly represents the elements of ADDRAC in order?
• Among the following, which distance represents the M27 area target?
• Which statement describes an Area ambush patrol?
• What is the mission of the Marine Corps Rifle Squad?
• Far ambush distance is defined as?
• SINCGAR stands for?
• What is the maximum range of the M240B when engaging an area target with the bipod?
• Which fundamental is Maximum Use of Offensive Action?
• Which option lists the full IWLDMM components?
• Which is a fundamental of the defense?
• How is Ambush defined?
• For the M32 grenade launcher, what is the area target range?
• Which of the following is a purpose of patrol?
• Which fundamental involves layering defensive positions to slow and degrade the attacker?
• How many steps are included in the STRESS sequence?
• Which statement about Rally Points is true?
• What is the maximum range of the M240B when engaging a point target with the bipod?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of reconnaissance?
• Which C.A.R.S. element is a deliberate attack on an enemy with a planned egress?
• In the mnemonic C.C.C.C.C.T., what is the final word?
• Which statement best defines Security within C.A.R.S.?
• Which label corresponds to the Primary fighting position?
• Which statement best describes the Final Preparation Position's function?
• Which statement about the M27 parameters is true?
• Which is a SAFESOC element?
• In Critical Phases of Flight, the acronym HALT represents which set of phases?
• In the five B's list, which item corresponds to the fourth B?
• MBITR stands for?
• HAMALA refers to asset categories in operations. HAMALA stands for which assets?
• What is the muzzle velocity of the M27?
• Near ambush distance is defined as?
• SAFESOC elements include which items?
• What describes an Area ambush patrol?